1. A risk of significant development delays due to working with a new supplier has been evaluated as having a 40% probability and potentially resulting in a 50,000 € cost overrun. The expected value for this risk is:
A. 125.000 €
B. 1.250 €
C. 2.000 €
D. 20.000 €
2. Which of the following is not considered to be an element of team building?
A. The planned process of encouraging effective working relationships.
B. Diminishing difficulties or roadblocks that interfere with the team’s competence.
C. The management of disagreements that develop among individuals working on the project.
D. Guiding people with different goals, needs and perspectives to work together effectively.
3. The schedule performance index (SPI) is calculated as
A. Planned Value (PV) divided by Earned Value (EV)
B. Earned Value(EV) divided by Planned Value (PV)
C. Project duration divided by Earned Value divided by Planned Value (Duration/(EV/PV))
D. Earned Value (EV) minus Planned Value (PV)
4. Cost estimates are refined during the course of planning as additional detail becomes known. In one widely used formulation of estimating accuracy an estimate expected to be between -10% and +25% of the actual final cost is called
A. budgetary.
B. order of magnitude.
C. definitive.
D. preliminary.
5. The process in which confirmation is obtained and documented that the project has met all customer requirements for the product of the project and that the customer has formally accepted the deliverables is called
A. project turnover.
B. project completion.
C. project closure.
D. project termination.
6. Which input to Integrated Change Control provides the basis for identifying changes and recognizing the possibility of future problems?
A. Performance measurement.
B. The project plan.
C. Work Performance Information.
D. Change requests.
7. Standards and regulations
A. are only indirectly related to quality management.
B. represent externally imposed quality criteria.
C. are the basis for the quality management plan.
D. represent quality criteria that must be adhered to.
8. Risks that occur near the end of project execution are characterized as being
A. more numerous and higher in impact than at any other time in the project life-cycle.
B. more numerous and lower in impact than at any other time in the project life-cycle.
C. less numerous but higher in impact than at any other time in the project life-cycle.
D. less numerous and lower in impact than at any other time in the project life-cycle.
9. Which of the following elements of the project plan contributes the least to project success as defined by customer satisfaction?
A. Scope definition document
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Scope management plan
D. Activity list
10. Fast track projects
A. may be completed in less time than similar projects.
B. generally have less risk than similar projects.
C. are generally staffed by employees with obvious management potential.
D. involve assigning additional resources to key activities so that they will be completed sooner.
Answers:
1.D(Expected Value = Probability x Impact = 0.40 x 50,000 [11.4.2.2]
2.C(Unresolved disagreements can, of course, lead to diminished team effectiveness. Nevertheless, conflict resolution is considered a part of General Management Skills rather than team building. [9.3.2]
3.B(Answer A is reversed. Answer C is sometimes mistakenly used to forcast project completion (it’s invalid because it doesn’t take into consideration which completed tasks are on the critical path). Answer D is the definition of Schedule Variance. [7.3.2.2]
4.A(Estimating accuracy for order of magnitude (OM) is -25% to +75%, for budgetary is -10% to +25% and for definitive is -5% to +10%. “Preliminary” does not correspond to any particular level of estimating accuracy. [7.1.3.2]
5.C(Project closure is concerned with obtaining “formal acceptance and handover of the final product, service, or result that the project was authorized to produce. The accceptance includes receipt of a formal statement that the terms of the contract have been met.” [4.7.3.3]
6.C(Change requests by their nature represent identified changes. Recognizing that a change has occurred in the absence of a change request is the focus of this question. [4.6]
7.B(Standards may suggest, and regulations impose, minimal requirements on quality. The so-called “lemon law” in the US required automobile dealers to take back a new automobile and refund the purchase price if more than a fixed number of days were lost to shop repair during the first six months of ownership. [1.5.2]
8.C(Early in the project, many risks have not surfaced, the design for the project is immature, and changes can occur, making it likely that more risks will be discovered. The costs to deal with problems, however, increases the later in the project life cycle they are detected, meaning that the impact is greater.
9.D(Customer satisfaction is derived from delivery of a product that meets real business needs in a cost effective manner. The activity list is a PROJECT deliverable and, of the four choices, the most remote from defining a satisfactory product. It is, in fact, an output of work on the other three items. [5.2]
10.A(Answer A is the objective of fast tracking, but part of the cost is higher risk (making answer B incorrect). There is no relationship between fast tracking and management training. Answer D is the definition of “crashing
Thursday, October 30, 2008
Sample Exam Questions & Answers 3
1. The steps for analyzing processes that will facilitate the identification of waste and non-value added activity is found in the
A. Process Improvement Plan.
B. Process Configuration Plan.
C. Quality Management Plan.
D. Quality Assurance Plan.
2. Which of the following is not true about product scope?
A. It deals with the features and functions that characterize a product or service.
B. Processes, tools and techniques vary by application area and are not addressed by the PMBOK.
C. Completion is measured against the project plan.
D. The product and sub-products are described in the Work Breakdown Structure.
3. All of the following are true about the scope statement except
A. It provides a documented basis for making future project decisions.
B. It is an essential component of the project charter.
C. It confirms a common understanding among the project stakeholders.
D. It outlines the project’s product descriptions and specifications.
4. A Tool & Technique in the risk identification process, in which a facilitator leads the project team in generating ideas about project risk and ensures that criticism and analysis is postponed to a later time, is called
A. brainstorming.
B. the Delphi technique.
C. SWOT analysis.
D. structured risk analysis.
5. Integration is primarily concerned with
A. ensuring that the time, scope and cost baselines are consistent with an acceptable quality standard and with the customer’s expectations.
B. effectively integrating the processes among the project management process groups that are required to accomplish project objectives with an organization’s defined procedures.
C. getting people working together effectively toward common project goals through appropriate training, management and leadership.
D. ensuring that all the tools and techinques of the various planning processes are appropriately scaled to the complexity and risk exposure of the project.
6. What is the relationship between cost estimating and pricing?
A. There is no clear relationship.
B. Price = Cost x (1 + IRR) where IRR is set in the corporate strategic business plan.
C. Price is greater than the cost by an amount that corresponds to the organization’s target profit levels in each market segment.
D. The price that an organization can charge for the product or service becomes the basis for project cost estimating.
7. In which phase are costs best controlled?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing and controlling
D. Closing
8. The performance report format that best shows the cumulative values over time for a project are called
A. bar charts
B. S-curves
C. Histograms
D. EV curves
9. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective project team supportive of quality?
A. Involving the team in planning.
B. Staffing the project with appropriate skills.
C. Offering bonuses for timely performance.
D. Developing measurable project success criteria.
10. A fixed-price contract represents
A. more risk for the buyer.
B. more risk for the seller.
C. a reasonable balance of risk for both buyer and seller.
D. an uncertain balance of risk for both buyer and seller.
ANSWERS:
1.A(Some of these steps might include analyzing process boundaries and configuration, defining process metrics, and setting targets for improved performance. [8.1.3.4]
2.C(“Completion of the project scope is measured against the project management plan (Section 4.3), the project scope statement, and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary, but completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements.” [Chapter 5 Intro]
3.B(“The scope statement ... provides a common understanding of the project scope amoung all project stakeholders and describes the project’s major objectives.” It is developed AFTER the project charter is created. [5.2.3.1]
4.A(In brainstorming, “under the leadership of a facilitator, [the project team or other experts] generate ideas about project risk.” Avoiding criticism and debate at this time is critical to encourage the free flow of ideas, some perhaps dumb, in order to reach the really brilliant insights. [11.2.2.2]
5.B(Answers A, C and D all result from effectively integrating the work of the project management process groups. [4.0]
6.A(Pricing is a business decision that uses the cost estimate as but one consideration among many. Other factors include market conditions, strategic objectives and profit objectives.
7.A(“The abilityof the stakeholders to influence the final characteristics of the prject’s product and the final cost of the project is highest at the start, and gets progressively lower as the project continues.” [2.1.1, Figure 2-2]
8.B(Bar charts, histograms and earned value (EV) curves are all normally used to plot data as of a particular point in time. See figure 10-2. [10.3.3.1, Glossary]
9.C(According to Herzberg, salary and bonuses are “hygene” factors that make little or no long-term contribution to achieving goals. Having the right skills on the team, involving the team in the planning work (so they will “own” the plan) and defining in advance what success looks like will all contribute to the development of team commitment to quality. [9.3.2.6]
10.D(Be careful with these sorts of questions! A fixed-price contract certainly represents more COST risk for the buyer, but “to the extent that the product is not well defined, both the buyer and seller are at risk.” [12.1.2.3]
A. Process Improvement Plan.
B. Process Configuration Plan.
C. Quality Management Plan.
D. Quality Assurance Plan.
2. Which of the following is not true about product scope?
A. It deals with the features and functions that characterize a product or service.
B. Processes, tools and techniques vary by application area and are not addressed by the PMBOK.
C. Completion is measured against the project plan.
D. The product and sub-products are described in the Work Breakdown Structure.
3. All of the following are true about the scope statement except
A. It provides a documented basis for making future project decisions.
B. It is an essential component of the project charter.
C. It confirms a common understanding among the project stakeholders.
D. It outlines the project’s product descriptions and specifications.
4. A Tool & Technique in the risk identification process, in which a facilitator leads the project team in generating ideas about project risk and ensures that criticism and analysis is postponed to a later time, is called
A. brainstorming.
B. the Delphi technique.
C. SWOT analysis.
D. structured risk analysis.
5. Integration is primarily concerned with
A. ensuring that the time, scope and cost baselines are consistent with an acceptable quality standard and with the customer’s expectations.
B. effectively integrating the processes among the project management process groups that are required to accomplish project objectives with an organization’s defined procedures.
C. getting people working together effectively toward common project goals through appropriate training, management and leadership.
D. ensuring that all the tools and techinques of the various planning processes are appropriately scaled to the complexity and risk exposure of the project.
6. What is the relationship between cost estimating and pricing?
A. There is no clear relationship.
B. Price = Cost x (1 + IRR) where IRR is set in the corporate strategic business plan.
C. Price is greater than the cost by an amount that corresponds to the organization’s target profit levels in each market segment.
D. The price that an organization can charge for the product or service becomes the basis for project cost estimating.
7. In which phase are costs best controlled?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing and controlling
D. Closing
8. The performance report format that best shows the cumulative values over time for a project are called
A. bar charts
B. S-curves
C. Histograms
D. EV curves
9. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective project team supportive of quality?
A. Involving the team in planning.
B. Staffing the project with appropriate skills.
C. Offering bonuses for timely performance.
D. Developing measurable project success criteria.
10. A fixed-price contract represents
A. more risk for the buyer.
B. more risk for the seller.
C. a reasonable balance of risk for both buyer and seller.
D. an uncertain balance of risk for both buyer and seller.
ANSWERS:
1.A(Some of these steps might include analyzing process boundaries and configuration, defining process metrics, and setting targets for improved performance. [8.1.3.4]
2.C(“Completion of the project scope is measured against the project management plan (Section 4.3), the project scope statement, and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary, but completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements.” [Chapter 5 Intro]
3.B(“The scope statement ... provides a common understanding of the project scope amoung all project stakeholders and describes the project’s major objectives.” It is developed AFTER the project charter is created. [5.2.3.1]
4.A(In brainstorming, “under the leadership of a facilitator, [the project team or other experts] generate ideas about project risk.” Avoiding criticism and debate at this time is critical to encourage the free flow of ideas, some perhaps dumb, in order to reach the really brilliant insights. [11.2.2.2]
5.B(Answers A, C and D all result from effectively integrating the work of the project management process groups. [4.0]
6.A(Pricing is a business decision that uses the cost estimate as but one consideration among many. Other factors include market conditions, strategic objectives and profit objectives.
7.A(“The abilityof the stakeholders to influence the final characteristics of the prject’s product and the final cost of the project is highest at the start, and gets progressively lower as the project continues.” [2.1.1, Figure 2-2]
8.B(Bar charts, histograms and earned value (EV) curves are all normally used to plot data as of a particular point in time. See figure 10-2. [10.3.3.1, Glossary]
9.C(According to Herzberg, salary and bonuses are “hygene” factors that make little or no long-term contribution to achieving goals. Having the right skills on the team, involving the team in the planning work (so they will “own” the plan) and defining in advance what success looks like will all contribute to the development of team commitment to quality. [9.3.2.6]
10.D(Be careful with these sorts of questions! A fixed-price contract certainly represents more COST risk for the buyer, but “to the extent that the product is not well defined, both the buyer and seller are at risk.” [12.1.2.3]
Sample Exam Questions & Answers 2
1. All of the following are true about lag except
A. the successor task must start later relative to the predecessor task.
B. the successor task should start later relative to the predecessor task but this can be altered by other aspects of network logic.
C. it can be used with all of the dependency relationship types.
D. it is represented in network logic tables and diagrams with a plus (+) sign.
2. The four types of risk response plans are
A. Avoidance, Acceptance, Mitigation and Transfer
B. Acceptance, Insurance, Mitigation and Transfer
C. Avoidance, Contingency Planning, Insurance and Mitigation
D. Acceptance, Mitigation, Contingency Planning, and Transfer
3. The Request Seller Responses process
A. often represents a significant project cost when extensive subcontractor contributions are needed.
B. involves obtaining responses from prospective sellers on how project needs can be met.
C. involves the receipt of bids or proposals and the application of the evaluation criteria to select a provider.
D. requires significant negotiation skills to complete with predictable success.
4. The recommended first step in integrated change management is to
A. do a preliminary assessment of the change request.
B. update the change disposition file.
C. notify the requestor that the change request has been received.
D. add the change request to the agenda for the next meeting of the review committee.
5. Which of the following would not suggest that the task could be completed sooner by adding more resources?
A. A programming task includes screen development and data modeling.
B. A telephone installer must connect ten new telephone lines into the trunk line array (a 0,6 x 0,4 meter metal box).
C. A three by four meter room must be painted.
D. Several experiments must be conducted in which the response of mice to various dosages of a new drug will be assessed.
6. Market demand, business needs and technological advances are all potentially reasons for conducting a project. This basis is captured in which document?
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Preliminary project scope statement.
C. Project selection criteria.
D. Project charter
7. Cost budgeting is the process of
A. allocating the project budget to the various identified work activities in order to establish a basis for the project estimate.
B. reconciling the project budget to the various identified work activities in order to establish a basis for the project contingency reserve.
C. allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work activities to establish the basis for the project contingency reserve.
D. aggregating the estimated costs of individual schedule activities or work packages to establish a total cost baseline for measuring project performance.
8. Scope verification is the process of
A. progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that produces the product of the project.
B. obtaining formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders.
C. subdividing the major product deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.
D. influencing the factors that create scope changes to ensure that changes are agreed upon, determining that a scope change has occurred and managing the changes when and if they occur.
9. Software development and automotive engineering belongs to which area of expertise?
A. General management knowledge and skills
B. Understanding the project environment
C. Specialized project knowledge
D. Application area knowledge
10. Bankruptcy of a major supplier was initially judged to be a low probability risk and no risk containment strategy was planned. The supplier did, in fact, go bankrupt. The team must now re-examine their risk plan. Which of the following tool and techniques are most relevant?
A. Variance and trend analysis.
B. Technical performance measurement.
C. Risk audits.
D. Risk reassessment.
ANSWERS:
1.B(A lag refers to a desired delay in the start of a successor task relative to the predecessor task and can be used with any dependency type as FS+, SS+ or FF+ the amount of the desired delay. However, if other predecessor tasks in the network require longer than this delay period to complete, the successor task will start later than the specified delay period. [6.2.2.5]
2.A(The four types of risk responses are 1) Avoidance (change the plan to eliminate the risk), 2) Transference (shift the consequences to a third party), 3) Mitigation (reduce the probability and/or consequences to an acceptable threshold, and 4) Acceptance (acknowledge the risk but take no specific action at this time). [11.5.2.1, 11.5.2.3]
3.B(“The Request Seller Responses process obtains responses, such as bids and proposals, from prospective sellers on how project requirements can be met.” [12.3]
4.A(Not all change requests and worth the time and effort to do a complete benefit/cost analysis. There may not be time (because of approaching deadlines) to implement a change regardless of its merit. The change may have already been considered in a slightly different form. The change may not be consistent with project objectives. A preliminary screening assessment is necessary. Meredith and Mantel, pp 536-539 [4.6]
5.B(Duration compression is only feasible when the work can be meaningfully divided into smaller, largely independent pieces. Screen development and data modeling are clearly distinct. One painter can paint two walls and another painter can paint the other two walls. Different researchers can each be responsible for one of the experiments. It is probably not feasible to have more than one person working in a 60 x 40 centimeter area. [6.5.2.3]
6.D(Projects are usually chartered and authorized as a result of one or more of the following: Market demand, business need, customer request, technological advance, legal requirement or social need. [4.1]
7.D(Answer D is the PMBoK definition. Although in practice answer A is often true, it is not recommended by PMI as best practice. Answers B and C are activities in risk management. [7.2]
8.B(“Scope verification is the process of obtaining the stakeholder’s formal acceptance of the completed project scope and associated deliverables.” [5.4]
9.D(Application areas are categories of projects that have common elements significant in such projects but are not needed or present in all projects. They are usually defined in terms of functional departments, technical elements (software development), management specializations and industry groups (automotive). [1.5.2]
10.D(“…if a risk emerges that was not anticipated in the risk register … the planned response may not be adequate. It will then be necessary to perform additional response planning to control the risk.” [11.6.2.1]
A. the successor task must start later relative to the predecessor task.
B. the successor task should start later relative to the predecessor task but this can be altered by other aspects of network logic.
C. it can be used with all of the dependency relationship types.
D. it is represented in network logic tables and diagrams with a plus (+) sign.
2. The four types of risk response plans are
A. Avoidance, Acceptance, Mitigation and Transfer
B. Acceptance, Insurance, Mitigation and Transfer
C. Avoidance, Contingency Planning, Insurance and Mitigation
D. Acceptance, Mitigation, Contingency Planning, and Transfer
3. The Request Seller Responses process
A. often represents a significant project cost when extensive subcontractor contributions are needed.
B. involves obtaining responses from prospective sellers on how project needs can be met.
C. involves the receipt of bids or proposals and the application of the evaluation criteria to select a provider.
D. requires significant negotiation skills to complete with predictable success.
4. The recommended first step in integrated change management is to
A. do a preliminary assessment of the change request.
B. update the change disposition file.
C. notify the requestor that the change request has been received.
D. add the change request to the agenda for the next meeting of the review committee.
5. Which of the following would not suggest that the task could be completed sooner by adding more resources?
A. A programming task includes screen development and data modeling.
B. A telephone installer must connect ten new telephone lines into the trunk line array (a 0,6 x 0,4 meter metal box).
C. A three by four meter room must be painted.
D. Several experiments must be conducted in which the response of mice to various dosages of a new drug will be assessed.
6. Market demand, business needs and technological advances are all potentially reasons for conducting a project. This basis is captured in which document?
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Preliminary project scope statement.
C. Project selection criteria.
D. Project charter
7. Cost budgeting is the process of
A. allocating the project budget to the various identified work activities in order to establish a basis for the project estimate.
B. reconciling the project budget to the various identified work activities in order to establish a basis for the project contingency reserve.
C. allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work activities to establish the basis for the project contingency reserve.
D. aggregating the estimated costs of individual schedule activities or work packages to establish a total cost baseline for measuring project performance.
8. Scope verification is the process of
A. progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that produces the product of the project.
B. obtaining formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders.
C. subdividing the major product deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.
D. influencing the factors that create scope changes to ensure that changes are agreed upon, determining that a scope change has occurred and managing the changes when and if they occur.
9. Software development and automotive engineering belongs to which area of expertise?
A. General management knowledge and skills
B. Understanding the project environment
C. Specialized project knowledge
D. Application area knowledge
10. Bankruptcy of a major supplier was initially judged to be a low probability risk and no risk containment strategy was planned. The supplier did, in fact, go bankrupt. The team must now re-examine their risk plan. Which of the following tool and techniques are most relevant?
A. Variance and trend analysis.
B. Technical performance measurement.
C. Risk audits.
D. Risk reassessment.
ANSWERS:
1.B(A lag refers to a desired delay in the start of a successor task relative to the predecessor task and can be used with any dependency type as FS+, SS+ or FF+ the amount of the desired delay. However, if other predecessor tasks in the network require longer than this delay period to complete, the successor task will start later than the specified delay period. [6.2.2.5]
2.A(The four types of risk responses are 1) Avoidance (change the plan to eliminate the risk), 2) Transference (shift the consequences to a third party), 3) Mitigation (reduce the probability and/or consequences to an acceptable threshold, and 4) Acceptance (acknowledge the risk but take no specific action at this time). [11.5.2.1, 11.5.2.3]
3.B(“The Request Seller Responses process obtains responses, such as bids and proposals, from prospective sellers on how project requirements can be met.” [12.3]
4.A(Not all change requests and worth the time and effort to do a complete benefit/cost analysis. There may not be time (because of approaching deadlines) to implement a change regardless of its merit. The change may have already been considered in a slightly different form. The change may not be consistent with project objectives. A preliminary screening assessment is necessary. Meredith and Mantel, pp 536-539 [4.6]
5.B(Duration compression is only feasible when the work can be meaningfully divided into smaller, largely independent pieces. Screen development and data modeling are clearly distinct. One painter can paint two walls and another painter can paint the other two walls. Different researchers can each be responsible for one of the experiments. It is probably not feasible to have more than one person working in a 60 x 40 centimeter area. [6.5.2.3]
6.D(Projects are usually chartered and authorized as a result of one or more of the following: Market demand, business need, customer request, technological advance, legal requirement or social need. [4.1]
7.D(Answer D is the PMBoK definition. Although in practice answer A is often true, it is not recommended by PMI as best practice. Answers B and C are activities in risk management. [7.2]
8.B(“Scope verification is the process of obtaining the stakeholder’s formal acceptance of the completed project scope and associated deliverables.” [5.4]
9.D(Application areas are categories of projects that have common elements significant in such projects but are not needed or present in all projects. They are usually defined in terms of functional departments, technical elements (software development), management specializations and industry groups (automotive). [1.5.2]
10.D(“…if a risk emerges that was not anticipated in the risk register … the planned response may not be adequate. It will then be necessary to perform additional response planning to control the risk.” [11.6.2.1]
Sample Exam Questions & Answers 1
1. You have finished analyzing activity sequences and have determined the start and finish dates for the project activities. What else must you do before the schedule development process is complete?
A. Review your schedule in light of available resources and their constraints.
B. Consult with the customer and your top management to secure their approvals.
C. Determine the appropriate contingency time to be included in the schedule using PERT techniques.
D. Allocate the available budget to the various tasks.
2. Which of the following is not one of the inputs to quality planning?
A. Benchmarking
B. Government agency regulations
C. Historical databases
D. Acceptance criteria
3. Earned value (EV) refers to
A. the value of the planned amount of work, expressed in units of currency.
B. the value of the completed amount of work, expressed in units of currency.
C. the value expended in order to complete planned work, expressed in units of currency.
D. the value of planned work, expressed in units of equivalent time.
4. The order in which needs are addressed (from lowest to highest) according to Maslow is
A. Physiological, Social, Security, Ego and Self-Actualization.
B. Physiological, Ego, Social, Security and Self-Actualization.
C. Physiological, Security, Social, Esteem and Self-Actualization.
D. Physiological, Psychological, Sociological, Ego and Self-Actualization.
5. A team proposing an unusual or high-risk approach is more likely to secure approval in an aggressive or entrepreneurial organization. This is an example of what organizational influence?
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Organizational process assets.
C. Organizational structure.
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
6. Which of the following is not true concerning status review meetings?
A. They should be regularly scheduled.
B. There are potentially different kinds of status review meetings depending on the needs of the particular stakeholders involved.
C. The objectives are to review what has happened on the project since the last status meeting and to build team spirit.
D. The should be planned as though they were mini-projects with clear definition of objectives, timeline, and expected “deliverables”.
7. The type of contract where the buyer incurs opportunity cost but little or no additional cost risk is called
A. Fixed-price with incentive.
B. Firm-fixed-price.
C. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment.
D. Fixed-price with right of renewal.
8. Documented direction for executing the project work to bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan is called
A. Corrective Action.
B. Preventive Action.
C. Response Action.
D. Adjustment Action.
9. The purpose of control charts is to determine if the process is in control. “In control” means
A. the process in question is being properly managed.
B. any unusual events which have occurred in the process have been identified.
C. established quality tolerances are being satisfied.
D. results are created by random variations.
10. The document which contains identified risks, risk owners, agreed-upon risk responses and other such items is called the
A. risk management plan.
B. risk register.
C. risk containment plan.
D. risk contingency plan.
Answers:1.A(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2])
2.A(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2]
3.B(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2]
4.C(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2]
5.D(Organizational cultures are reflected in numerous factors such as shared values, norms, beliefs and expectations, policies and procedures, view of authority relationships and work ethic and work hours. [2.3.2]
6.C(Status review meetings should also be used to look ahead at upcoming deadlines, identify possible new risks or looming problems, and ensure that everything is in place for the work that is to be completed. [10.3.3.3]
7.A(In a fixed-price with incentive contract, the buyer offers an additional fee based upon the seller providing something beyond the basic terms and conditions (quicker completion, higher quality, etc.). The additional value represents an opportunity cost to the buyer but little additional risk since, if the additional value is not delivered, he does not have to pay anything. Garrett, pp. 89-92 [12.1.2.3]
8.A(This is the glossary definition. [Glossary]
9.D(“Control charts may serve as a data gathering tool to show when a process is subject to special cause variation, which creates an out-of-control condition.” [8.3.2.2]
10.B(Other items in the risk register include specific implementation actions, symptoms and warnign signs of risk (triggers), residual and secondary risks, a watchlist of low priority risks, and the time and cost contingency reserves. [11.6.1.2]
A. Review your schedule in light of available resources and their constraints.
B. Consult with the customer and your top management to secure their approvals.
C. Determine the appropriate contingency time to be included in the schedule using PERT techniques.
D. Allocate the available budget to the various tasks.
2. Which of the following is not one of the inputs to quality planning?
A. Benchmarking
B. Government agency regulations
C. Historical databases
D. Acceptance criteria
3. Earned value (EV) refers to
A. the value of the planned amount of work, expressed in units of currency.
B. the value of the completed amount of work, expressed in units of currency.
C. the value expended in order to complete planned work, expressed in units of currency.
D. the value of planned work, expressed in units of equivalent time.
4. The order in which needs are addressed (from lowest to highest) according to Maslow is
A. Physiological, Social, Security, Ego and Self-Actualization.
B. Physiological, Ego, Social, Security and Self-Actualization.
C. Physiological, Security, Social, Esteem and Self-Actualization.
D. Physiological, Psychological, Sociological, Ego and Self-Actualization.
5. A team proposing an unusual or high-risk approach is more likely to secure approval in an aggressive or entrepreneurial organization. This is an example of what organizational influence?
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Organizational process assets.
C. Organizational structure.
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
6. Which of the following is not true concerning status review meetings?
A. They should be regularly scheduled.
B. There are potentially different kinds of status review meetings depending on the needs of the particular stakeholders involved.
C. The objectives are to review what has happened on the project since the last status meeting and to build team spirit.
D. The should be planned as though they were mini-projects with clear definition of objectives, timeline, and expected “deliverables”.
7. The type of contract where the buyer incurs opportunity cost but little or no additional cost risk is called
A. Fixed-price with incentive.
B. Firm-fixed-price.
C. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment.
D. Fixed-price with right of renewal.
8. Documented direction for executing the project work to bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan is called
A. Corrective Action.
B. Preventive Action.
C. Response Action.
D. Adjustment Action.
9. The purpose of control charts is to determine if the process is in control. “In control” means
A. the process in question is being properly managed.
B. any unusual events which have occurred in the process have been identified.
C. established quality tolerances are being satisfied.
D. results are created by random variations.
10. The document which contains identified risks, risk owners, agreed-upon risk responses and other such items is called the
A. risk management plan.
B. risk register.
C. risk containment plan.
D. risk contingency plan.
Answers:1.A(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2])
2.A(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2]
3.B(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2]
4.C(The first iteration of the project schedule, based only on dependency relationships and activity durations, only indicates the most optimistic schedule assuming unlimited resources. Since this is rarely the case, the next step is to determine resource availability and the impact of external constraints so that the schedule can be appropriately adjusted. [6.5.2]
5.D(Organizational cultures are reflected in numerous factors such as shared values, norms, beliefs and expectations, policies and procedures, view of authority relationships and work ethic and work hours. [2.3.2]
6.C(Status review meetings should also be used to look ahead at upcoming deadlines, identify possible new risks or looming problems, and ensure that everything is in place for the work that is to be completed. [10.3.3.3]
7.A(In a fixed-price with incentive contract, the buyer offers an additional fee based upon the seller providing something beyond the basic terms and conditions (quicker completion, higher quality, etc.). The additional value represents an opportunity cost to the buyer but little additional risk since, if the additional value is not delivered, he does not have to pay anything. Garrett, pp. 89-92 [12.1.2.3]
8.A(This is the glossary definition. [Glossary]
9.D(“Control charts may serve as a data gathering tool to show when a process is subject to special cause variation, which creates an out-of-control condition.” [8.3.2.2]
10.B(Other items in the risk register include specific implementation actions, symptoms and warnign signs of risk (triggers), residual and secondary risks, a watchlist of low priority risks, and the time and cost contingency reserves. [11.6.1.2]
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